PL1101E – 60 Sample (practice) questions for the mid-term assessment 7 Oct 2017
ANSWERS highlighted with explainers. References to lecture slides always refer to the full set of slides, not those called NOTES.
1. Which of the following best describes the mind?
a) The basis of rational thought.
b) The hidden instinctual self.
c) The embodiment of the soul.
d) The brain in action.
e) All of the above.
“Mind: The brain and its activities including thought, emotion and behaviour” – text p5
(definition in the margin). This precludes a response (a) that is restricted to rational thought.
Moreover, in the first lecture I stressed the idea that what you experience is what the brain is like “from the inside”. The idea of a hidden self (b) is due to Freud and refers to the idea of the
unconscious, and the idea of soul (c), the old translation of psyche, is not the same as mind.
2. New and innovative methods have allowed psychologists to observe brain activity and correlate it with mental processes. What improvement in psychological research resulted from the use of these methods?
a) Generalizability.
b) Objectivity.
c) Subjectivity.
d) Conclusiveness.
e) Simplification.
Generalizability (a) is an important feature of learning and was studied long before modern
methods of observing brain activity were invented. Subjectivity (b) would not be an
improvement. Observing brain activity allows us to correlate action with brain activity, but while this helps us better understand, it does not lead to greater conclusiveness (d) than any other
method of research. Conclusiveness is a function of how strong and convincing the evidence is, not simply a consequence of some particular method. Being able to observe the brain reveals
how complex it is, so simplification (e) is not a good choice. In the text p4 caption to top figure, the use of an fMRI scan is contrasted with introspection, a subjective method, as a better way to understand a subjective phenomenon such as feeling hungry. So all in all, (b) seems the best
choice here.
3. Psychology is considered a hub science because …
a) psychological research is well funded.
b) the general population is intrigued by the study of human behaviour.
c) psychology is one of the oldest disciplines.
d) many disciplines require an in-depth understanding of people.
e) It is one of the most popular university courses.
“Few occupations do not require an understanding of people …” ; Text – p5, ‘Why is psychology a hub science’? This, rather than funding, public interest, antiquity or popularity among students underlies the idea of a hub science .
PL1101E – Sample MCQ questions for the mid-term test Oct 2017
4. Which of the following orders best represents the timeline of origin of psychological theories?
a) Behaviourism, Functionalism, Cognitive Psychology, Humanistic Psychology.
b) Functionalism, Behaviourism, Humanistic Psychology, Cognitive psychology.
c) Cognitive psychology, Functionalism, Humanistic Psychology, Behaviourism.
d) Humanistic Psychology, Behaviourism, Cognitive psychology, Functionalism.
e) Cognitive psychology, Behaviourism, Functionalism, Humanistic Psychology.
Refer to the timeline on pp 20-21 of the text and the associated text on pp19-20. Keep in mind that functionalism is associated with James and Darwin; behaviourism with Thorndike, Pavlov and Watson as well as Skinner; Humanistic psychology with Rogers; and Cognitive psychology with Miller as well as Neisser.
5. Which of the following may be considered Freud’s greatest contribution to psychology as discipline?
a) The recognition that mental processes may occur unconsciously.
b) Discovery of the ego.
c) The notion of penis envy.
d) The Oedipus complex.
e) The method of free association.
Choices (b) to (e), though all attributable to Freud, are not generally accepted widely in
psychology, unlike his claim that many mental processes are unconscious. See also lecture 1 Ch 1 slide 26.
6. The study of psychology differs from the study of philosophy because …
a) psychologists investigate individual rather than group phenomena.
b) psychology employs the scientific method.
c) psychology is interested in the origins of thinking in infancy and childhood.
d) psychology is interested in the nature of free will.
e) philosophy has little interest in the mind.
The text at p 6 (psychology’s roots) is explicit that the two main roots are philosophy and natural science. The essential difference between psychologists and philosophers is that psychologists are empirical, and to be empirical and systematic is to be scientific. Animated video #1 also
points to this answer.
7. As far back as 7,000 years ago, healers used a technique called ________. It involved boring a
hole into the patient’s skull and was used for a variety of ailments including headaches and hallucinations.
a) exorcism
b) enucleation
c) trepanation see the textbook p 8 lower figure and associated text p 9
d) hydrocephaly
e) anencephaly
All other options have meanings which are not the same as trepanation
8. The first official psychological experiment involved …
a) observing the behaviour of cats when escaping puzzle boxes.
b) the salivation of dogs in anticipation of food in response to the arrival of the handler.
c) measuring how quickly, after hearing a ball drop onto a platform, a person could respond by striking a telegraph key.
d) the use of a stroboscope to control the timing of the appearance of two black lines against a white background.
e) measuring human memory loss with age.
See box ‘connecting to research’ textbook p11. Also the notes to slide 23 of Ch1 slides.
Wundt set up the first laboratory in psychology see timeline p 20.
9. The group of early 20th century German psychologists who founded Gestalt psychology included Kurt Koffka, Max Wertheimer, and …
a) Wilhelm Wundt. see qu 8
b) William James. American, functionalism
c) Wolfgang Köhler. see textbook p. 12.
d) Ulric Neisser. American, cognitive psychology
e) J. B. Watson. American, behaviourist
10. William James’ impact on contemporary psychology is evidenced by the fact that functionalism …
a) was absorbed into mainstream psychology.
b) became a separate discipline.
c) bridged the gap between philosophy and psychology.
d) bridged the gap between structuralism and Gestalt psychology.
e) None of the above.
“James’ ideas have become so dominant in psychology that we no longer refer to any separate ‘functionalist’ approach” – textbook p14, also notes to slide 25, lecture Ch 1.
11. A psychologist has been examining the “nature versus nurture” question. Which of the following would most likely be her conclusion?
a) We are solely a product of our surroundings and environment.
b) The mind is a result of interactions between inborn characteristics and everyday experiences.
c) We are nothing more than the sum of our genes.
d) Neither nature nor nurture can be studied in a scientific manner.
e) Epigenetics has rendered the entire question moot.
I stressed the idea of interaction repeatedly in the lecture, see also animated video #5.
12. As human beings, we each have a personal set of genetic material, our alleles. What term best describes this set?
a) Our genotype.
b) Our phenotype.
c) Our allelotype.
d) Our unique loci.
e) Homozygosity.
The above statement is essentially the definition of genotype, see the text p73 (margin).
13. For which one of the following is heritability H in the healthy human population greater than zero?
a) Presence of legs.
b) Presence of hair.
c) Presence of blue eyes.
d) Presence of red blood corpuscles.
e) All of the above.
Heritability is the ratio of genetic variance to total variance in a population. For legs, hair and red blood cells the genetic variance is zero. Therefore H is zero. That is, since everybody has
these things, there is no variance in the population (people do not differ), and the numerator in the equation for H is zero. Eye colour, on the other hand, does vary. Not everyone has blue eyes. So, H>0.
14. Researchers found that specific combinations of serotonin transporter alleles affected how
students reacted to being bullied. Students with the SS alleles had the strongest reaction, those with the LL alleles the mildest reaction, and those with the heterozygous SL alleles reacted
somewhere in between. What do these results suggest?
a) The L allele is the dominant allele.
b) The S allele is the recessive allele.
c) The S allele is the dominant allele.
d) The L and S alleles do not have a strict dominant-recessive relationship.
e) These alleles interact.
The alleles do interact (with the environment). But the results mentioned here do not address that interaction, so (e) is incorrect. The results reported here simply show an additive effect,
increasing from LL through SL to SS. This was the subject of a question on co-dominance in the forum (under Ch 3), and I wrote that “ …co-dominance is when you have both alleles expressing, and the net phenotypic effect is a simple sum of the alleles on each chromosome. Blood groups (fig 3.1) and serotonin transporter alleles are examples.”
15. Gene expression entails the synthesis of what component of a living cell?
a) Proteins
b) Lipids.
c) Nucleic Acids.
d) Carbohydrates.
e) Both A and B.
“Each gene contains instructions for making a particular type of protein” – text p73 last para. I also stressed in lecture that all genes do is manufacture proteins – that is how they achieve all their effects.
16. Different versions of a single gene are known as …
a) Heterozygotes.
b) Homozygotes.
c) Chromosomes.
d) Alleles.
e) Zygotes.
Different versions of the gene at specific locus (position) on a particular chromosome are called alleles; see slide 4 of the lecture on Ch 3, also the text pp 73-74.
17. Which one of the following is not part of the process by which our genes affect our behaviour?
a) gene expression.
b) the control of genes by other genes.
c) epigenetic factors.
d) mutation.
e) gene-environment interaction.
The processes by which genes affect behaviour apply whether or not our phenotype has
undergone a mutation during the formation of the sperm or egg that we come from. All options except (d) manifestly are part of processes by which genes affect our behaviour.
18. A person’s phenotype depends on …
a) their genotype.
b) nutrition.
c) parental care.
d) the environment in the womb.
e) All of the above.
Given a genotype, how a person actually turns out (their observable characteristics, appearance, behaviour, character, etc) is their phenotype (see slide 4 ch 3 lecture), and all of (a) to (d) affect how we turn out, what we are.
19. Sexual selection is a form of natural selection in which traits are favoured if they give an advantage in the competition for mates. Which of the following traits are likely examples?
a) Men are on average larger and more muscular than women.
b) Having a good sense of humour.
c) Preference for a different MHC genotype.
d) A and B.
e) A, B and C.
The difference in gender physique (a) is a classic example of a difference probably a result of
intra-sexual selection (men competing to attract women). Having a good sense of humour (b) is also mooted as attractive to women and used by men accordingly (text p98 para 2). For (c),
while humans do have preferences for partners with a different MHC group (the ‘fragrant’ T-
shirt study, next qu) , this is not something that gives anyone an advantage in competition for
mates – it just implies that we prefer others who are different from us in this respect (see slide 38 in lecture notes). This eliminates option (c) and therefore (e).
20. In a study where participants rated the pleasantness of T-shirt odours, what genes or genotypes influenced their odour preference?
a) Serotonin transporter.
b) Blood type.
c) Phosphatase enzyme.
d) Olfactory sensitivity.
e) Major histocompatibility complex
Fact. See text box interpersonal relations textbook p 102, lecture slide 38.
21. A drug that acts as a receptor agonist for a specific neurotransmitter will …
a) activate the neurotransmitter’s receptor.
b) block the neurotransmitter’s receptor.
c) increase the breakdown of the neurotransmitter and thus decrease its effect.
d) increase the reuptake of the neurotransmitter and thus decrease its effect.
e) increase the transmission of pain in the CNS.
By definition, agonists mimic the effect of a neurotransmitter; antagonists block its action. Ch 4 lecture slide 42.
22. When is it least likely that a neuron fires an action potential?
a) When the neuron is at rest.
b) During gene expression.
c) During myelination.
d) During depolarization.
e) During hyperpolarization.
Hyperpolarization refers to the increase negative voltage inside the axon relative to the outside (i.e. across the axon membrane), and during that time the neuron is refractory, and resistant to starting another action potential, see textbook fig 4.23
23. Which of the following structures is most critical in regulating feelings of hunger and thirst?
a) The amygdala. reaction to or perception of threat
b) The basal ganglia. important in movement control
c) The hippocampus. important for spatial sense and for consolidating memory
d) The hypothalamus.
e) The cerebellum. important for coordinating movements
24. Balance and the coordination of movements are managed by …
a) the cerebellum
b) the medulla. regulation of temperature, vomiting and other vital involuntary functions c) the pons. manages sleep arousal and facial expression
d) the primary motor cortex. initiates voluntary movement
e) the hippocampus. see qu 23
25. Each cerebral hemisphere comprises _____ lobe(s).
a) a single
b) two
c) three
d) four frontal, temporal, parietal and occipital lobes
e) five
26. Giacomo Rizzolatti and a team of Italian scientists conducted research that led to the discovery of mirror neurons in monkeys. Which research method did they use?
a) Positron emission tomography.
b) Functional magnetic resonance.
c) Electroencephalography.
d) Single cell recording.
e) fMRI scans.
See the box ‘connecting to research’, textbook p114. EEG recordings of mu [μ] waves (c) are thought to reflect the massed activities of mirror neurons (Pineda video) but that is not how they were discovered.
27. Neuronal communication is a two-step process. In the second step, which takes place between two neurons, what does the arrival of an action potential at the axon terminal of the first neuron signal?
a) The unavoidable depolarisation of the second neuron. no, could be hyperpolarisation
b) The synthesis of neurotransmitters by specialized enzymes. no, the enzymes already exist c) The uptake of neurotransmitters from the extracellular space. happens after (e)
d) The enzymatic breakdown of neurotransmitters. happens after (c), if at all
e) The release of neurotransmitters.
28. Gaia glances over at her roommate, who is on the phone with her mother. She watches as her
roommate’s facial expressions change from happy to sad to angry as she progresses through the phone conversation. Which part of Gaia’s brain is most likely to reflect activity related to the different facial expressions? …
a) The hippocampus.
b) The amygdala and insula.
c) The thalamus.
d) The striatum.
e) The left occipital cortex.
Only the amygdala and insula deal with negative or threatening expressions, see also qu 23.
29. _________ is a neuron that carries commands from the central nervous system to muscles or
glands.
a) A motor neuron
b) A sensory neuron incoming sensory signals to the CNS
c) A cerebellar neuron such neurons are in the cerebellum
d) An interneuron in the spinal cord, relays signals between sensory and motor neurons e) An extrasensory neuron no such thing
30. The ____ is the part of the peripheral nervous system that directs the activity of glands, organs, and smooth muscles.
a) somatic nervous system
b) endocrine system
c) autonomic nervous system see textbook fig 4.17 and definition p 130 margin
d) central nervous system
e) peripheral nervous system
31. One theory of colour vision is based on the existence of different types of cones for the detection of short, medium, and long wavelengths. What is this theory?
a) The afterimage model.
b) The Helmholtz theory.
c) Trichromatic theory.
d) Tiered wavelength model.
e) Opponent process theory.
Definition text p 159 (margin). Helmholtz proposed the theory but it’s not called
“the Helmholtz theory”.
32. Rods are …
a) hair cells sensitive to air pressure changes.
b) retinal receptors that can code a variety of different colours.
c) the means to discriminate taste.
d) photoreceptors sensitive in dim light. definition text p 156 (margin) and stressed in lecture
e) especially prominent in the fovea.
33. An important cue to the perceived distance of objects in the visual field is …
a) that nearer objects look larger than they really are.
b) binocular disparity. this is the means to see depth, using binocular vision (both eyes)
c) monocular disparity.
d) size constancy.
e) all of the above.
Relative size is a monocular cue to distance on the assumption that objects are actually the same or similar size (see ch 5 lecture slide 18), but objects don’t actually look larger when nearer (a). Monocular disparity (c) is an oxymoron. Size constancy (d), as the name implies, is the
mechanism by which our visual system avoids seeing things as different sizes when at different distances.
34. Bottom-up processing refers to …
a) perception based on the analysis of the sensory information at the sense organs.
b) the ‘flipping’ of ambiguous stimuli.
c) the phenomenon of change blindness.
d) processes that influence what we perceive based on what we already know.
e) inhibiting your first impulse when identifying objects.
The Hermann grid illusion would be an example. It is driven by the properties of the receptor fields of the retina. See ch 5 lecture slide 13.
35. ‘Blindsight’ …
a) refers to illusory visual experiences resulting from probing the occipital lobes with exploratory electrodes prior to surgery.
b) is the ability of patients with occipital lobe damage to accurately point to unseen objects, believing they are guessing.
c) refers to the use of echolocation to locate objects by bats or visually impaired humans.
d) refers to cases of recovery from early loss of sight.
e) is a synonym for tunnel vision.
Not in the textbook, but I described it in lectures. Analogous to the person with impaired sight due to primary visual cortex damage, yet who feels uneasy when presented with an angry face even though he cannot see it, because the amygdala still does its job (text p 116 2nd fig down).
36. Where does the optic nerve cross the midline?
a) Thalamus
b) Corpus callosum.
c) Primary visual cortex.
d) Optic chiasm. animated video #7 and lecture ch 5 slide 7
e) In the midbrain
37. The difference between the images projected onto each eye is referred to as …
a) the blind spot.
b) image overlap.
c) retinal disparity. textbook fig 5.27
d) the binocular differential.
e) the focus effect.
38. Why is binocular vision advantageous for predators?
a) It probably helps the predator attend to a single prey animal.
b) It helps the predator see depth and thus better seize the prey.
c) It helps with motion detection, even for the slightest of movements.
d) A and B.
e) A, B and C.
I mentioned (a) in lectures, and it’s also a logical inference. Different objects visible in each eye mean it will likely be harder to attend to and track any single one of them. Seeing depth (b) is the function of binocular vision, so yes. There is, however, little reason to think that motion detection (c) is enhanced with two eyes – it is a peripheral vision function, and even humans detect motion well outside the area where our visual fields overlap, i.e. using only one eye. So (d).
39. What is the purpose of a sensory homunculus?
a) It maps the primary motor cortex in proportion to the corresponding motor outputs.
b) It shows which areas of sensory cortex require the most oxygen and glucose.
c) It demonstrates how sensory inputs are connected to the central nervous system.
d) It shows how areas of the body are represented in the primary somatosensory cortex on the basis of sensitivity.
e) It is another name for the image of a perceived person on the retina.
See ch 4 lecture slide 17. I mentioned the homunculus discussing this slide; the homunculus is also shown at the text p181 (bottom) though you could answer without actually reading p 181.
40. Why are city dwellers more likely to see the Ponzo illusion than people from New Guinea or the Amazon rain forest?
a) Cities have many obvious linear perspective cues.
b) City dwellers are more accustomed to environments that consist of right angles, rectangles, and straight lines.
c) City dwellers have lost the ability to connect with the natural environment.
d) A and B.
e) A and C.
Both (a) and (b) are essentially the same point. See Ch 5 lecture slide 27, and remember also the commentary to the video by Scientific American explaining the Ames Room. There is no reason to think that city dwellers have automatically lost ability to connect with the natural
environment, and anyway the issue is whether the environment contains cues to depth. People living in mountainous regions or places like the grand canyon would probably be just as much affected by the Ponzo illusion as people in Singapore. So (d)
41. Many soldiers returning from fighting in the trenches in World War I were highly anxious and fearful of loud noises. These men were showing examples of …
a) extroversion.
b) transference.
c) objectivism.
d) introspection.
e) sensitization.
Exactly analogous to being nervous of tremors that have become associated with earthquakes.
(e) is the only intelligible answer. Other options make no sense.
42. The body monitors fat stores by assessing levels of the hormone ____, which is produced and secreted by fat cells.
a) insulin
b) leptin see text p 237 – this is a quote from para 2
c) calcitonin
d) orexin
e) glycogen
43. When are we least likely to see a person actually show emotion?
a) When the person interviews for a job.
b) When the person thinks they are unobserved.
c) When the person experiences an extreme emotion.
d) When the person is among others who are expressing their feelings.
e) When the person is nervous.
The answer is (a), by inference and exclusion. People do try to manage their emotions in social situations, and certainly in interviews; every other option describes a situation likely to promote the voluntary or involuntary expression of emotions.
44. Maslow’s view of motivation is best described as a …
a) power hierarchy.
b) pyramid of needs. text fig 7.15. no other descriptions fits
c) ladder to fulfilment.
d) A and B.
e) A, B and C.
45. The problem with paying students to get good grades is that …
a) the research suggests it may not always work. [see
b) it assumes extrinsic motivation will work for cognitive tasks.
c) it ignores intrinsic motives such as autonomy and mastery.
d) students may lose interest if the reinforcements stop.
e) All of the above.
For (a) to (c) see slides 14 and 15 in lecture Ch 7, and the video and discussion in lecture about this issue. See ch 8 for the idea that extinction occurs when reinforcement is discontinued (d). So (e).
46. Which of the following statements would best fit the theory that human emotional expression was shaped through evolution?
a) Facial expressions of basic emotions are the same all over the world.
b) Infants’ social smiles emerge at about the same age, even if they are born blind.
c) The same breadth of different emotions expressed by humans are also expressed by nearly all species of mammal, but to a lesser degree.
d) A and B.
e) A, B and C.
Ekman’s essential finding supported (a), and (b) would be strong evidence that social smiles
reflect an innate propensity and are not learned by imitation. So these are species-specific
patterns of behaviour that are unlearned (no one has to learn how to show fear or anger, for
instance). Since facial expressions are manifestly important for social behaviour, it is therefore likely that they are evolved patterns of behaviour and not just coincidentally similar among
different cultures. Item (c) is false, but if it were true it could also be interpreted as supporting an evolutionary perspective, since it would highlight a continuity between humans and animals. So (e). Note that the question as framed does not require that the statements be true. Had the
question been, “which of the following statements are true and best fit the theory … etc.”, then the correct answer would be (d). This illustrates why reading the question carefully is important.
47. Which scenario below supports the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion?
a) Tony approaches his friend Juanita, who is walking her dog. The dog begins to bark, and Tony’s heart races; he thinks about why this is the case, and realizes he has feelings for Juanita.
b) Rama wakes up feeling glum. He forces himself to smile and laugh out loud, and then he begins to feel happy.
c) Zaina feels very depressed about her recent breakup with her boyfriend. She shuts herself away and cries for nearly hour, but then she begins to feel better.
d) Mei Ling relaxes in a hammock. Suddenly, she hears the sound of a very large explosion. She feels afraid, and at the same time, her heart pounds and her palms sweat.
e) None of the scenarios support it.
From Summary 7.2 on p 273 of the text it should be clear that as the emotion and the physical response are occurring simultaneously, and as there is nothing to indicate that either is affecting the other, (d) fits the Cannon-Bard theory quite well. In (a) appraisal is involved, which is not mentioned in Cannon-Bard, and in (b) it’s clear that the behaviour leads to a change, hence
supporting James-Lange. In (c) the idea is that catharsis helps resolve an emotional crisis by discharging pent-up emotion, see text p 266.
48. According to the Yerkes-Dodson law …
a) level of arousal interacts with the complexity of a task to determine performance.
b) performance and arousal function independently, but are both impacted by task complexity.
c) heightened arousal leads to heightened performance on complex tasks.
d) lowered arousal disinhibits instinctive behaviours but inhibits learned behaviours.
e) the goal of drive reduction is to lower arousal.
Option (a) is clearly correct, see text fig 7.17. Items (b) – (d) are false. Item (e) is indeed an
implication of drive reduction theory, but the Yerkes-Dodson Law suggests that this is a reason not to accept drive reduction theory, since we often act to achieve optimal levels of arousal,
rather than to reduce arousal.
49. The tendency for the body to maintain a steady internal state using feedback loops is called …
a) drive reduction.
b) biofeedback.
c) homeostasis. text p 233
d) primary reinforcement.
e) secondary reinforcement.
Drive reduction (a) is thought to be the means to maintain a steady state (Ch 7 lecture slide 7) but it is not the name of the process. Similarly, while biofeedback (b) might be used to maintain a steady state, it is not the name of the process either. Primary (d) and secondary (e)
reinforcement are mechanisms of operant conditioning that might explain how drive reduction works, but again, they are not what the process is called.
50. In the rod and frame test, a report showed Japanese students did better in relative than in absolute judgements of rod length, while USA students show the opposite pattern. This might be because
…
a) Japanese students are more careful and cautious.
b) Japanese students are more pragmatic, and uncomfortable with a useless task.
c) Asian cultures generally favour attention to context more than western cultures.
d) absolute judgements are harder, and students in the USA are more accustomed to such tasks.
e) It may be an accidental or freak result. Too much should not be read into one report.
Both the textbook (fig 5.29 & text p 171) and the tutorial discussion addressed (c) as a likely
explanation. If (a) or (b) were true the Japanese students should be generally better, or worse, not better in one task and worse in another. Item (d) is unlikely, because while it might explain
American students having better absolute judgement, it would not explain why they had worse relative judgement. We can rule out (e) since the tutorials tended to get the same result, and, in any case, one should not lightly dismiss a study if we can see no methodological problem with it.
51. What distinguishes a reflex from an instinct?
a) A reflex does not depend on prior experience.
b) An instinct does not depend on prior experience. neither depends on prior experience
c) An instinct is a more complex pattern of coordinated behaviour than a reflex.
d) An instinct is a result of imprinting. it’s the other way round
e) A reflex is voluntary. no, by definition, text p277 margin
52. Which process gives organisms the greatest flexibility to survive in a changing world?
a) Learning.
b) Instincts.
c) Operant conditioning.
d) Emotions.
e) Arousal.
I stressed in lectures that the value of learning was the flexibility it conferred and noted that
humans depend the most on learning, and are the most flexible and able to survive species, since we can change and control our environment.
53. Learning that does not involve the formation of connections between stimuli, but only changes in the magnitude of responses to a specific stimulus is referred to as …
a) operant learning.
b) nonassociative learning. definition in text p279 margin
c) associative learning.
d) classical conditioning.
e) latent learning.
54. Which of the following is a particular advantage of observational learning?
a) It synchronizes behaviours, particularly between two unacquainted individuals.
b) It facilitates imprinting in both human beings and animals.
c) It transmits information across generations within families and cultures.
d) It provides rapid adaptation to situations beyond our control.
e) It is the means to effective treatment of many phobias.
Observational learning is mentioned as a particularly powerful means for the cultural
transmission of learning (textbook p 312). The imprinting idea (b) is false. All other options (a), (d), (e) are at best minor uses of observational learning, (c) is a much better answer.
55. As Mandy hears a song on the radio, she feels stressed. Her heart races, her hands sweat, and her breathing becomes rapid. The song is familiar because it was very popular at a time when her parents were going through a divorce that caused Mandy intense anxiety. In this scenario,
identify in order the CS; the UCS; the CR; the UCR.
a) parents fighting; song; anxiety toward parents fighting; anxiety toward song.
b) parents fighting; anxiety toward parents fighting; song; anxiety toward song.
c) song; parents fighting; anxiety toward song; anxiety toward parents fighting.
d) song; anxiety toward song; parents fighting; anxiety toward parents fighting.
e) radio; divorce; anxiety towards song; anxiety toward parents fighting.
Anxiety is prompted by the song and its associations. So, the anxiety roused by the song is a CR. The original UCR of anxiety would therefore have been a response to the parental fighting.
Therefore the fighting is the UCS, and the song has become a CS.
56. A man would like to stop drinking alcohol, but he is finding it difficult to resist the urge to drink when he meets up with friends. His therapist assures him that if he can resist the urge to drink during these social events, his cravings for alcohol will diminish even further, eventually fading away. What process is the therapist describing?
a) Avoidance. would apply if the advice was to avoid presence alcohol
b) Systematic desensitisation. would imply exposure to progressively more tempting stimuli
c) Spontaneous dissipation. not a technical term – extinction is correct for the same thing
d) Operant conditioning. no new response is associated with a consequence
e) Extinction.
The stimulus – social events – ceases to be associated with the consequence (reinforcing pleasure of drinking alcohol) – this is extinction.
57. At dinner Candace eats several familiar foods (pasta, salad, bread) and an unfamiliar food
(mussels). Later that evening she suffers abdominal discomfort. She attributes this to the
mussels, but later learns that she had developed a sensitivity to gluten. Her misattribution of the problem to the mussels is likely due to …
a) latent inhibition.
b) discrimination learning.
c) habituation.
d) sensitization.
e) a failure of discrimination.
Latent inhibition (text p285) occurs when a familiar CS masks acquisition of a new CS-UCR
connection. The example in the book is pizza – a familiar CS – so feeling sick (UCR) after
eating some would not be easily detected. You would not immediately associate the sick feeling with the pizza. Likewise here. The sickness is attributed to the unfamiliar food (mussels), not the familiar food that is actually the cause.
58. In order to demonstrate that classical conditioning can be a factor in the development of a phobia, John Watson and Rosalie Raynor conducted a study in which …
a) an infant boy was taught to fear a white rat.
b) a young adult male was taught to fear cashiers in the supermarket.
c) an adolescent girl was conditioned to fear snakes.
d) a student was conditioned to fear grotesque clowns.
e) a white rabbit was taught to fear a young infant
This is a famous experiment (text pp288-289) and you should know it. All other options are plausible examples of conditioning, just not the relevant ones.
59. The method for increasing behaviour that allows an organism to escape or avoid an unpleasant consequence or stimulus is called …
a) positive punishment.
b) positive reinforcement.
c) negative punishment.
d) negative reinforcement.
e) systematic desensitization.
See the text table 8.2 also lecture 8 slide 27. Behaviour is increased, so it is reinforcement; the unpleasant stimulus (or consequence) is removed/avoided, so it is negative.
60. Who is likely to discontinue his or her behaviour first if reinforcement completely stops?
a) Penny, who plays the slot machines.
b) Sam, who receives $10 each time he washes his neighbour’s car.
c) Mat, who is at Changi point fishing.
d) Beng, who repeatedly checks for e-mail from Lien while studying.
e) The Professor, who likes to crack jokes during class.
Sam is on a continuous schedule of reinforcement. He got paid for every car wash. He would notice at once if payment stopped. All other examples are of partial (intermittent) reinforcement. It would take some time to notice that
reinforcement had stopped (e.g. students don’t always laugh at jokes, so it takes time before one realises that they have stopped laughing altogether).
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